ابراهيم درادكه
24-01-2008, 12:45 AM
let f : A===== >B invertible mapping . show that the inverse is unique
م_س_ع
24-01-2008, 03:06 AM
if x in A & x^2 in B
now let x1=x2
(f(x1)=f(x2
x1=x2&x1=-x2
f no An unilateral
f no one to one
ابراهيم درادكه
29-01-2008, 02:09 PM
شو رأيكم بالحل التالي :
let g an h are two inverses for f then
f(g) = f(h)
g = h because f is 1-1
the inverse is unique